Why do Spanish speakers sometimes use le for lo (leísmo)?

I saw a sentence

¿Y a qué le llamas hacer una tontería?

and I do not understand how it could be an indirect object.
Is it possible that it is le used instead of lo (I think
they call it leísmo)?

Thanks

Generally, lo is used for direct objects and le for indirect objects, but Spanish speakers (primarily in Spain) broke this rule so much that the Royal Spanish Academy now accepts le as a direct object pronoun in the following situations (now known as leísmo):

RULE	EXAMPLE
In Spain, when the direct object is singular, human and male	yo le vi 'I saw him'
In some areas, le may be used out of respect. This is especially common when addressing the person directly.	Quiero verle 'I want to see you' but 'Quiero verlo a Juan.'
When the subject is impersonal se and the direct object is human	Se le notaba alegre. (one could see he was happy)

Also, some verbs take le for what English speakers may take to be direct object pronouns. Below are some examples:

Creer	no le creo. 'I don't believe you.'
Importar	No le importa nada. 'nothing matters to him'
Gustar	le gusta caminar. 'he likes to walk'
llamar	le llamo mañana. 'I will call him tomorrow.'
interesar	le interesa la historia. 'History interests her.'

Identify the following sentences as leísmo or 'correct' (as in lo and le are used as direct and indirect objects respectively). 

Please enter your name

1. Ella le pegó a él.

2.¡Se le ve bonito!

3. Le vendo el carro.

4. le toca a ti (its your turn).